Can someone answer me this?
If the Crimea holds a referendum to split from the Ukraine, and it is deemed unlawful under international law, for not involving all citizens of the Ukraine.
Then how come a referendum by the Scots about leaving the UK without the English, Welsh, and the Irish, voting, is deemed lawful?
What’s the difference?
Surely, anyone can hold a referendum on any subject and it doesn't matter if someone thinks it's "unlawful" - problems only arising when someone tries to put the results into effect with legal framing?. Anyway, FE, it's a good analogy.
ReplyDeleteWhy not ask your MP?
ReplyDeleteI suspect your readers will be very interested in the answer!
The Scottish Independence Referendum Act 2013 got the royal nod last year.
ReplyDeletehttp://www.legislation.gov.uk/asp/2013/14/enacted
It depends on the result the rulers of the world have ordained.
ReplyDeleteTut... FE you're behind the curve - Scotland is taking on the ruble as its new currency and the Nord Stream gas pipe is being extended to Grangemouth. It's Salmond's only option.
ReplyDeleteIsn`t the same as referendums held in the Falklands and Gibraltar?
ReplyDeleteThe right to self determination?
Indeed. Crimean vote was, as far as I can see, democracy in action - something that the Fourth Reich wants eliminated and we have to do what they tell us...
ReplyDeleteSee my post today : http://dioclese.blogspot.co.uk/2014/03/eu-and-crimea-democracy-in-action.html