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Sunday, 16 March 2014


Can someone answer me this?

If the Crimea holds a referendum to split from the Ukraine, and it is deemed unlawful under international law, for not involving all citizens of the Ukraine.

Then how come a referendum by the Scots about leaving the UK without the English, Welsh, and the Irish, voting,  is deemed lawful?

What’s the difference?


  1. Surely, anyone can hold a referendum on any subject and it doesn't matter if someone thinks it's "unlawful" - problems only arising when someone tries to put the results into effect with legal framing?. Anyway, FE, it's a good analogy.

  2. Why not ask your MP?

    I suspect your readers will be very interested in the answer!

  3. The Scottish Independence Referendum Act 2013 got the royal nod last year.

  4. It depends on the result the rulers of the world have ordained.

  5. Tut... FE you're behind the curve - Scotland is taking on the ruble as its new currency and the Nord Stream gas pipe is being extended to Grangemouth. It's Salmond's only option.

  6. Dickersfromtwickers17 March 2014 at 10:53

    Isn`t the same as referendums held in the Falklands and Gibraltar?
    The right to self determination?

  7. Indeed. Crimean vote was, as far as I can see, democracy in action - something that the Fourth Reich wants eliminated and we have to do what they tell us...

    See my post today :


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