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Sunday 16 March 2014

Referenda

Can someone answer me this?

If the Crimea holds a referendum to split from the Ukraine, and it is deemed unlawful under international law, for not involving all citizens of the Ukraine.

Then how come a referendum by the Scots about leaving the UK without the English, Welsh, and the Irish, voting,  is deemed lawful?

What’s the difference?

7 comments:

  1. Surely, anyone can hold a referendum on any subject and it doesn't matter if someone thinks it's "unlawful" - problems only arising when someone tries to put the results into effect with legal framing?. Anyway, FE, it's a good analogy.

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  2. Why not ask your MP?

    I suspect your readers will be very interested in the answer!

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  3. The Scottish Independence Referendum Act 2013 got the royal nod last year.
    http://www.legislation.gov.uk/asp/2013/14/enacted

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  4. It depends on the result the rulers of the world have ordained.

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  5. Tut... FE you're behind the curve - Scotland is taking on the ruble as its new currency and the Nord Stream gas pipe is being extended to Grangemouth. It's Salmond's only option.

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  6. Dickersfromtwickers17 March 2014 at 10:53

    Isn`t the same as referendums held in the Falklands and Gibraltar?
    The right to self determination?

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  7. Indeed. Crimean vote was, as far as I can see, democracy in action - something that the Fourth Reich wants eliminated and we have to do what they tell us...

    See my post today : http://dioclese.blogspot.co.uk/2014/03/eu-and-crimea-democracy-in-action.html

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